The statement $\sim(p \leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is
- equivalent to $\mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \mathrm{q}$
- a fallacy
- a tautology
- equivalent to $\sim \mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \mathrm{q}$
Solution

The entries in the columns 5 and 6 are identical. $\therefore \quad \sim(\mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \sim q) \equiv p \leftrightarrow q$
Asked in: MHT CET 2024 (16 May Shift 2)