The statement $(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow[(\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q})…
- equivalent to $\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}$
- a tautology
- a fallacy
- equivalent to $\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \sim \mathrm{q}$
Asked in: MHT CET 2022 (06 Aug Shift 1)