The statement $(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow[(\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q})…

The statement $(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow[(\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow \mathrm{q}]$ is
  1. equivalent to $\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}$
  2. a tautology
  3. a fallacy
  4. equivalent to $\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \sim \mathrm{q}$

Asked in: MHT CET 2022 (06 Aug Shift 1)

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