The logical statement $(p \wedge \sim q) \vee q \vee(\sim p \wedge q)$ is equivalent to
The logical statement $(p \wedge \sim q) \vee q \vee(\sim p \wedge q)$ is equivalent to
- $p \vee \sim q$
- $\sim p \wedge q$
- $p \wedge q$
- $p \vee q$
Solution
$\begin{aligned} & (p \wedge \sim q) \vee q \vee(\sim p \wedge q) \\ & \equiv\{(p \wedge \sim q) \vee(\sim p \wedge q)\} \vee q \\ & \equiv \sim(p \Leftrightarrow q) \vee q \equiv p \vee q\end{aligned}$
Asked in: MHT CET 2022 (05 Aug Shift 1)
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