The inverse of $p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow r)$ is logically equivalent to
The inverse of $p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow r)$ is logically equivalent to
- $\mathrm{p} \rightarrow(\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r})$
- $(\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r}) \rightarrow \sim \mathrm{p}$
- $(p \vee q) \rightarrow r$
- $(\mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{r}) \rightarrow \mathrm{p}$
Solution
Inverse of $p \rightarrow(q \rightarrow r)$ is
$\begin{aligned}
& \equiv \sim p \rightarrow \sim(q \rightarrow r) \\
& \equiv(q \rightarrow r) \rightarrow p
\end{aligned}$
$\ldots[\because q \rightarrow p \equiv \sim p \rightarrow q]$
Asked in: MHT CET 2024 (10 May Shift 1)
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