Let Then is equal to
Let f n = ∫ 0 π 2 ∑ k = 1 n sin k - 1 x ∑ k = 1 n ( 2 k - 1 ) sin k - 1 x cos x d x ,…
Solution
Given,
Now let,
So,
Now multiply and divide by we get,
Now let
Hence, the integral becomes,
Hence,
Asked in: JEE Main 2023 (13 Apr Shift 2)