If $z=\sec (y-a x)+\tan (y+a x)$, $\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x^2}-a^2 \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}$…

If $z=\sec (y-a x)+\tan (y+a x)$, $\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x^2}-a^2 \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}$ is equal to
  1. $0$
  2. $-z$
  3. $z$
  4. $2 x$

Solution

We have, $ \begin{aligned} & z=\sec (y-a x)+\tan (y+a x) \\ & \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}=-a \sec (y-a x) \tan (y-a x)+a \sec ^2(y+a x) \\ & \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x^2}=-a\left[-a \sec (y-a x) \tan ^2(y-a x)\right. \\ & \left.\sec ^2(y+a x) \tan (y+a x) \quad-a \sec ^3(y-a x)\right]+2 a^2 \\ & \operatorname{Similarly}^2 \\ & \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}=\sec (y-a x) \tan ^2(y-a x) \\ & \quad+\sec ^3(y-a x)+2 \sec ^2(y+a x) \tan (y+a x) \\ & \therefore \quad \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x^2}-a^2 \frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y^2}=0 \end{aligned} $

Asked in: AP EAMCET 2002

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