If $\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{r}$ and $\mathbf{p} \cdot \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{p}…
If $\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{r}$ and $\mathbf{p} \cdot \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{p} \cdot \mathbf{r}$, then $\ldots . . .$.
- $p=r$
- $q=r$
- $p=q$
- $p+q=0$
Solution
$\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{p} \times \mathbf{r}$
$
\begin{aligned}
& \Rightarrow \quad \mathbf{p} \times(\mathbf{q}-\mathbf{r})=0 \\
& \text { p.q }=\text { p. } r \\
& \Rightarrow \quad \text { p. }(\mathbf{q}-\mathbf{r})=0 \\
&
\end{aligned}
$
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) we can say that $\mathbf{p}$ is neither parallel nor Perpendicular to $(\mathbf{q}-\mathbf{r})$
$
\begin{aligned}
& \Rightarrow \quad \mathbf{q}-\mathbf{r}=0 \\
& {[\because \mathbf{p} \neq 0]} \\
& \Rightarrow \quad \mathbf{q}=\mathbf{r} \\
&
\end{aligned}
$
Hence, option (2) is correct
Asked in: AP EAMCET 2020 (22 Sep Shift 2)
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