If $I=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log (1+\tan x) d x$, then value of $I$ is
If $I=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log (1+\tan x) d x$, then value of $I$ is
- $\frac{\pi}{16} \log 2$
- $\frac{\pi}{2} \log 2$
- $\frac{\pi}{8} \log 2$
- $\frac{\pi}{4} \log 2$
Solution
$\begin{aligned} & \text { Let } I= \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log (1+\tan \theta) \mathrm{d} \theta \\ &= \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log \left[1+\tan \left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\theta\right)\right] \mathrm{d} \theta \\ & \ldots\left[\because \int_0^a \mathrm{f}(x) \mathrm{d} x=\int_0^2 \mathrm{f}(\mathrm{a}-x) \mathrm{d} x\right] \\ &= \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log \left(1+\frac{1-\tan \theta}{1+\tan \theta}\right) \mathrm{d} \theta \\ &=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log 2 \mathrm{~d} \theta-\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log (1+\tan \theta) \mathrm{d} \theta \\ & \therefore \quad 2 \mathrm{I}=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \log 2 \mathrm{~d} \theta \Rightarrow \mathrm{I}=\frac{\log 2}{2}[\theta]_0^{\pi / 4}=\frac{\pi}{8} \log 2\end{aligned}$
Asked in: MHT CET 2024 (11 May Shift 2)
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