If $I_1=\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x$, and $I_2=\int_0^1 \frac{\tan ^{-1} x}{x} d x$, then $I_1:…

If $I_1=\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x$, and $I_2=\int_0^1 \frac{\tan ^{-1} x}{x} d x$, then $I_1: I_2$ is
  1. $1: 1$
  2. $2: 1$
  3. $3: 1$
  4. $4: 1$

Solution

Given, $I_1=\int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x$ $ I_2=\int_0^1 \frac{\tan ^{-1} x}{x} d x=\int_0^{\pi / 4} \frac{t}{\tan t} \cdot \sec ^2 t d t $ Put, $\tan ^{-1} x=t$ $ \begin{aligned} & x=\tan t \\ & d x=\sec ^2 t d t \\ & U . L \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{4} \end{aligned} $ L. $L \rightarrow 0$ $ \begin{aligned} & =\int_0^{\pi / 4} t \cdot \frac{\cos t}{\sin t} \cdot \frac{1}{\cos ^2 t} d t=\int_0^{\pi / 4} \frac{t}{\sin t \cdot \cos t} d t \\ & =\int_0^{\pi / 4} \frac{2 t}{2 \sin t \cdot \cos t} d t=\int_0^{\pi / 4} \frac{2 t}{\sin 2 t} d t \end{aligned} $ $ \begin{aligned} & \text { Now, put } 2 t=x \\ & 2 d t=d x \\ & d t=\frac{d x}{2} \\ & U . L \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2} \\ & \end{aligned} $ $ \begin{aligned} & L . L \rightarrow 0 \\ & =2 \int_0^{\pi / 2} \frac{x}{\sin x} d x \\ & I_2=2 \cdot I_1 \\ & \therefore \quad I_1: I_2=2: 1 \end{aligned} $ Hence, option (2) is correct

Asked in: AP EAMCET 2020 (22 Sep Shift 2)

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