If $\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are the unit vectors such…
If $\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are the unit vectors such that $(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})=1$ and $\vec{\mathbf{a}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{c}}=\frac{1}{2}$, then
$\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ are non-coplanar
$\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are non-coplanar
$\vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are non-parallel
$\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are parallel and $\vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ are parallel
Solution
Let angle between $\vec{\mathbf{a}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{b}}$ be $\theta_1, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{d}}$ be $\theta_2$ and $\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}}$ be $\theta$.
Since, $(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})=1$
$\Rightarrow \quad \sin \theta_1 \cdot \sin \theta_2 \cdot \cos \theta=1$
$\Rightarrow \theta_1=90^{\circ}, \theta_2=90^{\circ}, \theta=0^{\circ}$
$\Rightarrow \vec{\mathbf{a}} \perp \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}} \perp \vec{\mathbf{d}},(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \|(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})$
So, $\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}=k(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})$
and $\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}=k(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})$
$\Rightarrow \quad(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot \vec{\mathbf{c}}=k(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}}) \cdot \vec{\mathbf{c}}$
and $(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot \vec{\mathbf{d}}=k(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}}) \cdot \vec{\mathbf{d}}$
$\Rightarrow\left[\begin{array}{lll}\vec{\mathbf{a}} & \vec{\mathbf{b}} & \vec{\mathbf{c}}\end{array}\right]=0$ and $\left[\begin{array}{lll}\vec{\mathbf{a}} & \vec{\mathbf{b}} & \vec{\mathbf{d}}\end{array}\right]=0$
$\Rightarrow \vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{c}}$ and $\vec{\mathbf{a}}, \vec{\mathbf{b}}, \vec{\mathbf{d}}$ are coplanar vectors, so options (a) and (b) are incorrect.
Let $\quad \vec{\mathbf{b}} \| \vec{\mathbf{d}} \Rightarrow \vec{\mathbf{b}}=\pm \vec{\mathbf{d}}$
As $\quad(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})=1$
$(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}})=\pm 1$
$\Rightarrow \quad[\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}} \vec{\mathbf{c}} \vec{\mathbf{b}}]=\pm 1$
$\Rightarrow \quad[\vec{\mathbf{c}} \vec{\mathbf{b}} \vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}]=\pm 1$
$\Rightarrow \quad \vec{\mathbf{c}} \cdot[\vec{\mathbf{b}} \times(\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}})]=\pm 1$
$\Rightarrow \quad \vec{\mathbf{c}} \cdot[\vec{\mathbf{a}}-(\vec{\mathbf{b}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{a}}) \vec{\mathbf{b}}]=\pm 1$
$\Rightarrow \quad \vec{\mathbf{c}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{a}}=\pm 1 \quad[\because \vec{\mathbf{a}} \cdot \vec{\mathbf{b}}=0]$
which is a contradiction, so option (c) is correct.
Let option (d) be correct.
$\begin{array}{ll}
\Rightarrow & \vec{\mathbf{d}}=\pm \vec{\mathbf{a}} \text { and } \vec{\mathbf{c}}=\pm \vec{\mathbf{b}} \\
\text { As } & (\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{c}} \times \vec{\mathbf{d}})=1 \\
\Rightarrow & (\vec{\mathbf{a}} \times \vec{\mathbf{b}}) \cdot(\vec{\mathbf{b}} \times \vec{\mathbf{a}})=\pm 1
\end{array}$
which is a contradiction, so option (d) is incorrect.
Alternatively option (c) and (d) may be observed from the given figure.