An object undergoing simple harmonic motion takes 0 . 5   s to travel from one point of zero velocity…
Solution
If displacement of particle undergoing SHM is given by,
, then velocity of the particle will be given by, .
From the graph, we can see, at point and velocity of the particle will be zero. Clearly, time taken is half of time period, which is .
Therefore,
Now, angular frequency will be,
Asked in: AP EAMCET 2022 (04 Jul Shift 1)
